12∞ · Question 2.1.6
Why did Jesus call himself the “Son of Man”?
It was his own preferred title, and it carries two meanings at once.
From the book 12∞ Twelve to Infinity by D.R. Davenport. The full answer is free to read with an iBelieve account.
Where it sits in the book
- Part
- 2: Jesus Beyond the Religious Construct
- Gate
- 2.1: Birth, Identity, and Setting
- In print
- Page 51
- ← 2.1.5 · What does “Son of God” actually mean?
- 2.1.7 → · Was Jesus the Messiah people were expecting?
- All of Part 2
Topics
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